Is Jesus Christian?

Is Jesus a Christian?

by Ibn Anwar

Recently , on paltalk a Christian entered my room “The Traditional Order of Islam” and asked the room about Jesus. He enquired, ” Muslims believe Jesus is a Muslim. Is this supported anywhere in the Bible?” Before I gave any answer I countered,”What do you think Jesus was?” Unhesitantly, he replied,”His name is Jesus CHRIST, he was Christian, duh”. This article is a humble attempt in response to such queries posed by Christians to Muslims.

First and foremost, let us have a look at this term Christ. Ordinary Christians in my experience would immediately define Christ as “saviour” the moment the question,”What is Christ?” pops up. This can’t be farther from the truth Christ simply comes from the Greek Χριστός , transliterated as Christos which have been shortened to Christ. It is simply Greek for the Hebrew מָשִׁיחַ , transliterated as Mashiyach(or simply Messiah). The meaning of which is ANNOINTED or chosen one. Muslims ourselves do not hesitate to call Jesus as the Christ, the Messiah or Masih in Arabic since the Qur’an declares :

“…Christ Jesus the son of Mary was (no more than) an apostle of God…”                  (Surah Nisa’, 171)

The Christ, son of Mary, was no more than a messenger, before whom many of the messengers have passed away..” (Surah Al-Mai’dah, 75)

In the Qur’an the term Masih is unique and is used only for Jesus and no one else, but the opposite is true for the Bible. However, many Christian think that this term Christ in the Bible is unique and is only to be found attached and associated with Jesus. They will then go on to say that this indicates the supreme or even divine position of Jesus. This is probably due to the fact that the title Christ(which is Greek) is NEVER TRANSLATED and RETAINED only in the New Testament, whenever it is applied to Jesus and translated into English as ANNOINTED whenever it happens on other Biblical characters. What’s up with that??? Well, this is one of many “games” Bible translators play with in order to subtlely programme and fool the general audience. The truth of the matter is the term or title Christ is quite a common Biblical expression found throughout the Old Testament. The following are but a few examples where the same word used for Jesus was used for other Biblical personalities:

“Great deliverance giveth he to his king; and sheweth mercy to his annointed, to David, and to his seed for evermore.” (KJV, Psalms 18:50)

In the Septuagint(oldest Greek manuscript of the Old Testament) the Greek reads “to xristo autou“(his Christ[rendered annointed in the above translation])

In the Vulgate it reads “christo suo“(his Christ)

To the PAGAN King Cyrus :

“Thus saith the Lord to his annointed, to Cyrus,…” (KJV, Isaiah 45:1)

In the Vulgate it reads “christo meo“(my Christ)

Biblically speaking, if God found it fitting to call a PAGAN, His christ, what’s so special about the title when it is applied to Jesus?

Other instances can be found in Leviticus 4:3, 1 Samuel 24:6 and Lamentations 4:20.

Now that we’ve dealt briefly with the term Christ from which the term Christian is derived, let us move on to the topic proper. Is Jesus a Christian?

Earlier, the questioner implied that Jesus is a Christian simply because he was titled Christ. If this is so then shall we also conclude the same with King Cyrus the pagan King since he was also CHRIST? Is the questioner suggesting that Christians are pagans? Clearly, it is fallacious to say that Jesus was a Christian merely because he is Christ. In addition, he was probably not even called Christ during his three years ministry as scholars agree he either spoke Hebrew or Aramaic. It is likely he was actually called by the Hebrew title Mashiyach.

Let us now get down straight to business. Did Jesus  anywhere in the Bible, especially the four canonical Gospels ever called himself Christian? The Christians who know their Bible should affirm the negative. Nowhere in the Bible did Jesus ever termed himself  Christian or even brought forth the word. If that is the case then where did this term CHRISTIAN originate from?

We are informed by the Bible and its scholars that a certain King Agrippa was about the first recorded individual to ever used the term Christian. It is mentioned:

“Then Agrippa said unto Paul, Almost thou persuadest me to be a Christian.” (KJV, Acts 26:28)

We are also informed that King Agrippa was a PAGAN. A pagan invented the word and Paul along with his followers adopted it? How ironic?

Christians the purported followers of Jesus and SUPPOSEDLY monotheists were named as such by a pagan? This is certainly a most curious find. There is absolutely no evidence Biblical or otherwise that Jesus named himself nor his followers Christians. The name is a pagan innovation. If Jesus was not a Christian, then what was he?

I and the rest of my Muslim brethren with authority from the Qur’an and the Prophet Muhammad (SAWS) s.a.w. claim that Jesus a.s. was a Muslim. What is the evidence?

First of all, let us define the term Muslim.

The term Muslim like Islam is derived from the trilateral Arabic root S-L-M which means both surrender or submit and peace. The idea is that when you have attained total submission you will achieve a state of peace and serenity. Muslim is basically the “doer” of S-L-M, hence the one who submits. That is its literal definition. Technically, a Muslim is one who surrenders and submits to the will of Almighty God.

The Qur’an says :

“Say: ‘O People of the Book(Jews and Christians)! Come to common terms and between us and you: That we worship none but Allah (SWT); that we associate no partners with Him; that we erect not, from among ourselves Lords and patrons other than Allah (SWT).’ If they turn away, say ye: Bear witness that we are Muslims(bowing down to Allah (SWT)’s will)”

Before we continue, let me make it clear that the term “Father” as used by  Christians for God is eschewed in Islam.This is due to the connotation it bears(i.e. that God SIRED Jesus or BEGOTTEN not MADE). Nevertheless, it should be made clear that the term Father as used by Jesus in the Gospels is metaphorical in nature. As Jesus said,”I return to my Father and YOUR Father, to my GOD and YOUR GOD.”(John 20:17)

Three basic features of a Muslim according to the quoted Qur’anic verse:

1. Submits to the will of God.

2. Worships only One God and avoids shirk( associating partners with Him).

3. BOWS down (prostrates) to God

Jesus surrendered and submitted himself to God :

“And he(Jesus) said, Father, all things are possible unto Thee; take away this cup from me(difficulty): nevertheless, not as I will, but as Thou Will.” (KJV, Mark 14:36)

In another place relating about the same incident :

” Saying , Father, if You be willing, remove this cup from me : nevertheless not my will, but yours, be done.” (KJV, Luke 22:42)

“..Your WILL be done, on earth as it is in heaven..” (from the famous “Lord’s prayer” in Matthew and Luke) -Where’s Jesus’ will??

If one has the chance to ask Jesus what his religion is or what he is, I’m sure in accordance with the verses above he will say somewhere along the lines, “my religion is that of submission to Divine Will and I submit to God”. This is a very lengthy definition. One concise word for this in Arabic is Islam or MUSLIM!

Jesus worshipped only ONE God:

When asked about the first and most important commandment Jesus replied :

“Hear O Israel the Lord OUR God the Lord is ONE Lord” (Mark 12:29)

He said OUR God(inclusive of he himself) not just YOUR God and that THE GOD is ONE. This message is an echo of that which is found in the Qur’an in Surah Al-Ikhlas, verse one,”Say: He is Allah (SWT), the One and Only”.

In John Chapter 17, Jesus was praying and supplicating to the Father or God(AS ALWAYS)as stated in verse 1. In verse number three of the chapter he, Jesus declared :

“This is eternal life(this is what salvation is), that they may know YOU(God) THE ONLY TRUE GOD, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.” (KJV, John 17:3)

This is perhaps the clearest of all declarations in the whole New Testament where Jesus affirmed Gods oneness and declaimed any part in Godhood. Here’s a short analogy for those who don’t get the meaning of ONLY. If I have a son and his name is Ahmad and I said,”Ahmad is my only son”. What am I saying? I’m declaring that I have only one son and none other. If someone comes along and says I have two sons, either I’m lying or the person is, since I’ve declared that I have ONLY ONE SON which is singular in nature. Further more, Jesus did not only say ONLY. The singularityand oneness is amphasised further by TRUE, hence ONLY TRUE. If there is another god, then that god must be declared false. For example in Corinthians, Satan is called “the God of the world”. No one in their right mind will say that satan is actually God. The statement is merely metaphorical and when compared with John 17:3, one can easily conclude that Satan though may be called God is a FALSE God.

Jesus literally PROSTRATED to God(a unique Muslim characteristic):

“And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me, nevertheless not as I will but as You will.” (Matthew 26:39)

This is yet another evidence of his submission. Jesus fell ON HIS FACE and prayed, just as how the Muslims do it while in prostration to the God of the worlds.

Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς
ἁγιασθήτω τὸ ὄνομά σου
ἐλθέτω ἡ βασιλεία σου
γενηθήτω τὸ θέλημά σου, ὡς ἐν οὐρανῷ καὶ ἐπὶ γῆς
τὸν ἄρτον ἡμῶν τὸν ἐπιούσιον δὸς ἡμῖν σήμερον
καὶ ἄφες ἡμῖν τὰ ὀφειλήματα ἡμῶν,
ὡς καὶ ἡμεῖς ἀφίεμεν τοῖς ὀφειλέταις ἡμῶν
καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς πειρασμόν,
ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ.
[Ὅτι σοῦ ἐστιν ἡ βασιλεία καὶ ἡ δύναμις καὶ ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας. ἀμήν.] 
Our Father, which art in Heaven,
Hallowed be thy Name.
Thy Kingdom come.
Thy will be done,
in earth as it is in Heaven.
Give us this day our daily bread.
And forgive us our trespasses,
As we forgive them that trespass against us.
And lead us not into temptation;
But deliver us from evil.
[For thine is the kingdom, The power, and the glory,
For ever and ever.] Amen.

To surmise the above “Lord’s prayer” from the Gospel of Matthew Jesus spoke of:

God’s holiness, God’s kingdom, God’s will on earth and in heaven, begged for sustenance, begged for mercy and forgiveness, protection from evil and God’s Sublime and Everlasting Glory. In all of these, Jesus singled out God and no one else. In Short, he declared total subordinance and surrender to God. Is it not plain enough?

Conclusion :

It is clear from the evidences and arguments adduced, Jesus is definitely a Muslim and certainly not a Christian.

“How strange that in every special case one praises one’s own way. If Islam means ’surrender to God’s will’ it’s Islam that we all live and die.”

Interesting words from Johann Wolfgang Von Goethe

This article is best ended with the following Qur’anic quotation:

Say [O you who believe!]: “We believe in Allah (SWT), in that which has been revealed to us; in that which was revealed to Abraham, Ishmael, Isaac, Jacob, and the Descendents (Jacob’s sons); in that which was given to Moses and Jesus; and in that which was given to the Prophets from their Lord; we do not make any distinction between any of them, and to Him we are Muslimun (Muslims)” (Al-Baqarah, 136)

 Wallahu’alam bisawab

Peace and blessings of Allah (SWT) be upon His messenger Muhammad, his family and the companions. may Allah (SWT) protect the Ummah and defend it from the dissidents. Ameen.

Wabillahi Taufiq Wal Hidayah Wassalamu’alaikum Warahmatullah.

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16 Responses to “Is Jesus Christian?”

  1. Nabeel Ahmad says:

    that is really nice and great informations Masha Allah, May Allah bless you, Aameen

  2. Shariq Jamal says:

    Masha Allah! Very interesting and quite well argued.

  3. Aleksis700 says:

    Muslims claim that Jesus prayed using the Muslim prayer posture, along with all the prophets. Yet Jesus instructed his disciples to pray while standing up. (Mark 11:25), King David prayed while sitting in (2 Sam 7:18), and Paul instructed prayer in church with hands lifted up in the air. (1 Tim 2:8) My question is: If Jesus was a Muslim, why would he instruct his disciples to pray standing up? And when it says Jesus fell on his face and prayed, how do you know he was not fully prostrate?

  4. Ibn Anwar says:

    Greetings Aleksis700,
    You’ve raised three points in your comment(in attempting a rebuttal):

    1. Jesus instructed his disciples to pray while standing up. (Mark 11:25)

    2. David prayed while sitting. (2 Samuel 7:18)

    3. Paul instructed prayer in church with hands lifted up in the air. (1 Timothy 2:8)

    My Response:

    1. There is absolutely no problem with Jesus instructing his followers to pray whilst standing up. Please note that I did not claim that the prayer methods and postures of the previous prophets are precisely confirmed and retained in Islam. What I tried to do was to show a kind of connection between Jesus and Islam as revealed to Muhammad and you did not question or try to refute that. In any case, this posture of standing up is also found in Islam. In our salah(fixed prayer) the first posture is standing up straight.

    2. In Islam one can supplicate whilst standing, sitting or even lying down. Especially if one is not able physically then one is to sit down or lie down. The Qur’an says:
    ‘After you have performed the act of worship (salaat), remember Allah (swt) standing, sitting and lying down.’ (4: 103)

    3. Paul told people to raise hands in prayer. Well, first of all Islam does not put much stock in Paul. He is considered a nobody in the house of Islam. Nevertheless, there is such a thing as raising one’s hands up in the air in prayer or supplication.

    Abu Musa Al-Ash’ari said,

    “The Prophet – may Allah bless and grant him peace – supplicated. Then he raised his hands. And I saw the whiteness of his armpits.”

    Ibn ‘Umar said,

    “The Prophet – may Allah bless and grant him peace – raised his hands, and then said: “O Allah! I declare my innocence to You from what Khalid has done.””

    Abu ‘Abd Allah said: And Al-Uwaysi said, “Muhammad ibn Ja’far related to me about Yahya ibn Sa’id and Shurayk [that] they heard Anas say about the Prophet – may Allah bless and grant him peace: “He raised his hands until I saw the whiteness of his armpits.””

    Ibn Hajar Al-‘Asqalani said in Fath Al-Bari,

    “[As for] His saying: “The Chapter of Raising the Hands during Supplication”: That is, [he raised them] according to a particular fashion…

    [As for] His saying: “And Abu Musa said”: He is the Ash’ari[i]. “The Prophet – may Allah bless and grant him peace – supplicated. Then he raised his hands. And I saw the whiteness of his armpits”: This is a portion of his long hadith pertaining to the story about the murder of his paternal uncle, Abu ‘Amir Al-Ash’ari. It has been presented with an unbroken chain (mawsulan) in [the chapter dealing with] Military Campaigns (Al-Maghazi) during the Battle of Hunayn. And I alluded to it three chapters ago in ‘The Chapter of Allah’s Saying: “And pray for them.”

    [As for] His saying: “And Ibn ‘Umar said: “The Prophet – may Allah bless and grant him peace – raised his hands, and then said: “O Allah! I declare my innocence to You from what Khalid has done””: And this is a portion of the narration about the Battle of Banu Jadhima…It has been presented with an unbroken chain (mawsulan) with its explanation in [The Chapter of] Military Campaigns after the Battle of the Conquest. And the aforementioned ‘Khalid’, is Ibn al-Walid.

    [As for] His saying: “And Al-Uwaysi said: He is ‘Abdullah ibn ‘Abd Allah. Muhammad ibn Jaf’ar is Ibn Abu Kathir. And Yahya ibn Sa’id is the Ansari[ii]. This is also a portion of the hadith of Anas regarding the prayer for rain (al-istisqa). It was presented there with this chain along with the omission of most of its transmitters (mu’allaqan). But Abu Nu’aym established its connectedness (wasalahu) through the version of Abu Zur’a Al-Razi. He said, “Al-Uwaysi related to us by way of him.”

    Thank you. Islam is the truth.

  5. Mirza Baig says:

    Brother Ibn Anwar, Alhamdulillah, you have impressed me and my family with your nicely researched, presentation. I am trying to
    do my bit by addressing social / minority related issues on my blog
    muslim-world-today.blogspot.com (just started).
    Carry on the good work. Allah Hafiz.

  6. Joe W says:

    An excellent article. This article really exposes the lies of Christians about this innocent messenger of God Jesus (PBUH).

  7. aaron wilson says:

    So let us say even if the apostles not ever knew jesus what would be the charge for following this prophets words? Whether he was arabic or not his words are divine and are for the sake of entering the
    kingdom.Even if Allah is transending

  8. The Bull says:

    Ibn

    Jesus was called the Christ many times before King Agrippas ‘christian’ declaration. Also the term christian could have been widely used before the written account in Acts!

    You use John 17:3 to support your arguement.
    Why not consider just two verses down? John 17:5:

    ‘And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.’

    This statement says Jesus is God for we know God does not share his glory with anyone! It also makes him much greater than any prophet…’before the world was’.

    • Ibn Anwar says:

      You said:
      “Jesus was called the Christ many times before King Agrippas ‘christian’ declaration. Also the term christian could have been widely used before the written account in Acts!”

      What do you mean the term Christian could have been used widely before the written account??? Could have??? The word occurs only two times in the whole New Testament! There is no evidence to substantiate your “could have” theory which is why you use the word in the first place.

      “You use John 17:3 to support your arguement.
      Why not consider just two verses down? John 17:5:

      ‘And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.’

      This statement says Jesus is God for we know God does not share his glory with anyone! It also makes him much greater than any prophet…’before the world was’.”

      Before going to verse 5 why don’t you explain why Jesus identifies the Father as the ONLY TRUE God and himself only as APOSTELLO i.e. an apostle(one chosen, subservient to the Father). To believe that earns you eternal life! This would have been the perfect moment to introduce the Trinity. Unfortunately for you he does not. Rather he affirmed the monotheistic concept that the Jews had and clearly denies the polytheistic Trinity you ascribe to him.

      What about verse 5? You say that God does not share His glory with anyone. You are right in saying that. This is mentioned twice in Isaiah 42:8,”I am the LORD; that is my name! I will not give my glory to another or my praise to idols.” He says the same in Isaiah 48:11. Your argument is that the glory that Jesus has is that glory that God speaks of in those verses in Isaiah. Because God does not share His glory with anyone that must mean Jesus is God. Okay..let’s follow along your argument here. Anyone having that glory must be God since God shares His with no one. Let’s go to the same chapter, verse 22, “I have given them the glory that you gave me, that they may be one as we are one”. The same word doxan(δόξαν) is used which according to your line of argument must make them God too! So this is what we have now Father, Son, Holy Spirit and the disciples. Throw out the Trinity and enter whatever you wanna call it! Try harder mate…

  9. The Bull says:

    I think it is unreasonable to assume that King Agrippa invented the word ‘christian’ just because he is the first person recorded in the bible to have used that term.

    To know God and Jesus; this is eternal life. This statement could not be said of any other prophet. To know God is not enough; You must also know Jesus.

    Jesus has many titles. Just because he is a servant/apostle, this does not exclude him from divinity by any means.
    Philipians 2:6-8 shows that he humbled himself in the form of a servant even though he was equal with God.

    There is no denying that the New Testament confirms Jesus as God. You just choose not to believe it.

    God the Father shared his glory with Jesus because he is God and unified with him. Jesus has apparently given his glory (v22) to the believers so it is not the Father, but the Son, who gives the glory to another.
    This also answers another seeming contradiction in that no one has seen God at any time (John 1:18) and no one can see the face of God and live (Exodus 33:20), yet Abraham, Jacob, Moses and others saw God ‘face to face’. It is the Fathers face that no one has seen, not the Sons.

    • Ibn Anwar says:

      You said:
      I think it is unreasonable to assume that King Agrippa invented the word ‘christian’ just because he is the first person recorded in the bible to have used that term.

      Why is it unreasonable to conclude that? Shouldn’t the Bible be conclusive evidence? If the term Christian was current in the time of Jesus’ followers and it was the official label used amongst them one would expect it to be mentioned several times by them. But we have no record of the followers ever calling themselves Christians in the New Testament.

      You said:
      To know God and Jesus; this is eternal life. This statement could not be said of any other prophet. To know God is not enough; You must also know Jesus.

      Who says such a statement cannot be made for any other prophet? Don’t fudge the verse Bull. It says to know the Father and Jesus whom you have sent i.e. to know that Jesus is a messenger earns you eternal life. The same is found in Islam for Muhammad s.a.w. In the cardinal statement of faith in Islam we are to recognise, believe and declare that “There is no God except Allah and Muhammad is His messenger”. This statement of faith is the foundation of belief and key to salvation as statement in numerous narrations e.g. من كان آخر كلامه , لا اله ال الله , دخل الجنة “Anyone whose speech ends with ‘there is no god except Allah’ will enter paradise.” (Abu Ya’la from Abi Said)

      You said:
      Jesus has many titles. Just because he is a servant/apostle, this does not exclude him from divinity by any means.
      Philipians 2:6-8 shows that he humbled himself in the form of a servant even though he was equal with God.

      It is because Jesus was always a servant that he cannot be counted as God. John 17:3 says that Jesus was sent by the Father. When was he sent by the Father? Standard Trinitarian claim is that the “humbling” or “lowering” made by the second person was at the occasion of the incarnation. Prior to the incarnation he was equal to the Father in every respect. Yet, it is also the Trinitarian belief that the “Second Person” was actually sent by the Father prior to the incarnation which necessarily implies that the former is lower than the latter. An equal cannot by definition send an equal unless you hijack the term and reinvent its semantic value which is impossible and fallacious. The idea of Jesus being sent by the Father is a powerful one that shows how he can never be considered equal to the latter. If he is not really equal to the Father then he is not God. In anything Philippians 2:6-8 actually refute the Trinitarian concept. Verse six says he(Jesus) did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. Notice that the verse does not say the Father, but rather God. Jesus is supposed to be God. If so how could he not have regarded equality with God(HIMSELF) something to be grasped? It does not make much sense. How is someone equal to himself? The Trinity doctrine according to the Athanasian creed speaks of the three persons being equal to one another. It is careful not to suggest that Jesus is equal to God which would be a very silly thing to say if he is God Himself. If you say that it was the verse is referring to the human nature in the hypostatic union then you would be saying that the divine is at the mercy of the temporal creation which undermines the sovereignty and supremacy of God.

      The New Testament confirms that Jesus as “god” in the manner that Thayer’s lexicon’s fourth definition of ‘theos’ says, that is, persons other than god who occupy positions of respect were culturally thought of as theos(out of respect). We find examples of this in the Old Testament too such as Moses who is called God by God in Exodus 7:1, the judges who are called Gods by God in 82 Psalms and quoted by Jesus in John 10 etc.

      You said:
      God the Father shared his glory with Jesus because he is God and unified with him. Jesus has apparently given his glory (v22) to the believers so it is not the Father, but the Son, who gives the glory to another.
      This also answers another seeming contradiction in that no one has seen God at any time (John 1:18) and no one can see the face of God and live (Exodus 33:20), yet Abraham, Jacob, Moses and others saw God ‘face to face’. It is the Fathers face that no one has seen, not the Sons.

      It is clear that you are grasping at straws. The verses in Isaiah are YHWH’s speech. Unless you submit that YHWH does not include Jesus which you can never do as a Trinitarian you have no case. The Son who is part of YHWH according to Trinitarian thought contradicted his own words when he SHARED his glory(John 17:20-22) which is also the Father’s glory to mere human beings. The problem with you sir is that you cannot comprehend that Jesus’ glory is not that which is spoken of in Isaiah. It is not the glory that the father has. In fact, Acts tells us that God glorified His servant, Jesus which shows that Jesus’ glory isn’t YHWH’s since YHWH was at no time a servant. It is the servant Jesus that is glorified (Acts 3:13).

  10. mrkiller says:

    “To know God and Jesus; this is eternal life. This statement could not be said of any other prophet. To know God is not enough; You must also know Jesus. ”

    1Cor 11:3, “But I want you to understand that Christ is the head of every man, and the husband is the head of his wife, and God is the head of Christ.”

    god is the BOSS of krist (how can one be a boss if he himself is a boss ? ) paul clearly was no trinitarian . it is obvious man.
    you don’t apply your ‘subservient’ jibberish here, otherwise you will be forced to admit that humans must also be gods.

  11. mrkiller says:

    it is dumbass theology. if your ‘lowering’ you self then surely you have given up many of your divine attributes. otherwise how the “”””” does ‘lowering’ yourself make any sense?

  12. ekspresidiri says:

    Christians rely on the passage in John 5:18, “… because he said that God was his Father himself and thereby equating himself with God.” They spent the next ayat2 explaining that he beat himself in humility before God and explain his position before God, even Jesus expressly declared himself a messenger / messenger of God (John 5:30-31).

    In Matthew 2:5, Jesus told a paralytic, “My Son, your sins are forgiven.” Some scribes who were there felt shocked and bertanya2 in the heart, “Who can forgive sins apart from God himself?” Meanwhile, in the verse John 12:49 Jesus deny personal initiative by saying, “For I speak not of myself, but the Father who sent Me, hath commanded me to say what should I say and I to convey. ” See also John 8:40-42 is very clear that Jesus was a prophet / messenger of God to the people of Israel.

    QS. 21:24-25. Are they taken for worship gods other than Him? Say (O Muhammad): “Bring your proof! (Qur’an) is a warning to people who are with me, and warning the people before me”. Actually, most of them do not know the right, because it’s their turn. We did not send any Messenger before you (Muhammad) but We revealed to him: “Behold, there is no God (the right) but I, so worship ye all of me”.]

    [QS. 5:68. Say: “O People of the Book (Jews and Christians), you have not seen any religion until you uphold the teachings of the Torah, the Gospel and what it (the Qur’an) is revealed to you from your Lord”. Indeed what is revealed unto thee (Muhammad) from thy Lord will add to the rebellion and disbelief of many of them (the Book), so do not grieve for those who reject it.]

  13. ekspresidiri says:

    I LOVE YOUR BLOG

  14. Nasr says:

    Romans interpret Aramaic teachings wrongly without Jewish Nasoreans/Ebionites scholars guiding them. No Israelites view Holy Spirit as God.

    Since they were using own judgement without guidance from Jewish Nasoreans/Ebionites scholars close to Jesus (pbuh) . This led to misguided understanding of Israelite scriptures as can be seen when one read read Greek Christian scriptures.

    They thought Holy Spirit is God as Holy Spirit being referred with title God’s Spirit. And they thought Jesus is ‘special’ son of God as they believe Jesus becomes flesh due to Holy Spirit (claimed to be God) creating life in womb of a woman. And they say Jesus is also God as they believe Jesus is Word of God before be given flesh , that exist at the same time with the Spirit and Almighty God.

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